When famine was common and regular due to feudal relations for centuries, and within a couple decades the Soviets eradicated famine forever, then yes, they were great.
No? Socialism didn’t cause the famine. Famine was not a “price,” it was a historically recurring symptom of underdeveloped feudal agriculture that the soviets abolished as soon as they could.
No? What part of “famine was historically common due to feudal agriculture, so when the soviets collectivized agriculture famine was ended forever” is difficult to understand?
I didn’t lie about any of it. Are you saying famine wasn’t common under the Tsar, or that the 1930s famine wasn’t the last major famine in Eastern Europe outside of World War II?
No? There was mass weather disaster, combined with kulaks destroying grain and killing livestock to sabotage collectivization. Once it became known that there were conditions for famine, grain was redirected. Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?
When famine was common and regular due to feudal relations for centuries, and within a couple decades the Soviets eradicated famine forever, then yes, they were great.
Some (millions) of you might die, but that a price im willing to pay!
No? Socialism didn’t cause the famine. Famine was not a “price,” it was a historically recurring symptom of underdeveloped feudal agriculture that the soviets abolished as soon as they could.
Just in time to kill a few million rebellious rapscallions. Minor oopsie.
No? What part of “famine was historically common due to feudal agriculture, so when the soviets collectivized agriculture famine was ended forever” is difficult to understand?
The lying part
I didn’t lie about any of it. Are you saying famine wasn’t common under the Tsar, or that the 1930s famine wasn’t the last major famine in Eastern Europe outside of World War II?
A famine where millions died despite there being enough food, but the food was stolen by muscovites? No, there wasn’t.
No? There was mass weather disaster, combined with kulaks destroying grain and killing livestock to sabotage collectivization. Once it became known that there were conditions for famine, grain was redirected. Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?