• Tja@programming.dev
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    5 days ago

    A famine where millions died despite there being enough food, but the food was stolen by muscovites? No, there wasn’t.

    • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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      5 days ago

      No? There was mass weather disaster, combined with kulaks destroying grain and killing livestock to sabotage collectivization. Once it became known that there were conditions for famine, grain was redirected. Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?

        • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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          5 days ago

          Because Israel is a genocidal settler-colonial project and it needs them to die off to exist. This is nothing like the Soviet Union, which needed developed agriculture, which is why they collectivized and stopped the worst of the famine. What is your point? Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?

          Answer deliberately and clearly, you seem to be allergic to making a coherent point.

                • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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                  2 days ago

                  No, China and the Soviet Union are not genocidal nor settler-colonies, which leads me to believe you have no idea what that even means.

                  • Tja@programming.dev
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                    2 days ago

                    Yeah, ask Ukraine. Or Estonia. Or Latvia. Or Belarus. Or Lithuania. Or Poland. Or Czechia. Or Hungary. But what’s a few genocides and a dozen colonies, right?