“VATICAN CITY, June 23 (Reuters) - The Vatican on Tuesday reaffirmed a long-standing rule that only an ordained priest or ​deacon can give a sermon at a Catholic mass, ‌rejecting a request from German bishops to broaden the practice and allow sermons by women or other laypeople.”

  • m0darn@lemmy.ca
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    3 days ago

    Is handmaid a euphemism for concubine/sex slave?

    Or is it more like “well he’s my boys so I guess I have to”

    • root@lemmy.wtf
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      3 days ago

      handmaid means servant

      and its like “The Lord has decided this, I agree as its his will”

          • edible_funk@sh.itjust.works
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            2 days ago

            Which Bible? Which translation, which council? Because most of the stuff in “the Bible” changes with every translation. An example would be the relatively recent changes to condemn homosexuality when originally they were condemning the Roman practice of pederasty.

            Anyway, first century Jewish girls were usually betrothed during or immediately after puberty and as she was already promised to Joseph according to one gospel she would have been between 12 and 16. It’s possible she was an outlier but much more likely if she did exist she was pregnant around 14.

            • root@lemmy.wtf
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              2 days ago

              read the original greek and hebrew at this point if you hate translations this much

                  • edible_funk@sh.itjust.works
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                    2 days ago

                    You can’t prove a negative. You’re the one that claims god exists, where’s your empirical evidence? Where’s your proof? Repeatable, testable proof? As it is there’s no evidence whatsoever of any deity of any kind so there’s no reason to believe they’d exist. You say they do, that’s your claim, now prove it. Maybe learn some rhetoric and logic first so you can actually have a legitimate good faith discussion.

      • m0darn@lemmy.ca
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        3 days ago

        handmaid means servant

        … And servant is a common euphemism for slave in the bible.

        In modern language a servant is someone that is paid money to do work and can leave the relationship without fear.

        A slave is someone that does work because of obligation and isn’t necessarily provided anything to survive (ie may also need to labour to provide themselves food/shelter) and cannot leave the relationship without fear of retribution.

        Which word seems more accurate for what’s described in Luke 1:26-38? Was Mary’s consent sought, or was she just informed what was expected of her? To me it seems like she doesn’t say “Oh Elizabeth, remember how I’ve always wanted to have God’s baby, but now that I’m married to Joseph I can’t” instead she is informed of the plan and just says “if you say so”.

        I think it would be more likely that a good god would obtain consent, but that Luke didn’t find evidence of it, and so he wrote his own account of what happened based on his cultural expectations of what that interaction would have been like. What do you think? Would the Gospel of Luke be better of it presented the importance of consent, like maybe that would help men to treat women with respect.

        • root@lemmy.wtf
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          2 days ago

          the Bible is full of metaphors and parables

          The Lord serves us every moment we are alive, so we should serve him too

          Mary was informed, and thus agreed to it

          God, as he is onmipotent, knew of Mary’s obedience before she was even formed in the womb and thus chose her

          • T00l_shed@lemmy.world
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            2 days ago

            Im sorry, my religion says your religion is all fabricated nonsense, so yes the church is sexist deal with it